How can 1=2 | 27 Oct 2009

shabbir's Avatar, Join Date: Jul 2004
Go4Expert Founder
If we have a = b then
a^2 = ab
a^2 b^2 = ab b^2
(a + b) (a b) = b (a b)
a + b = b
2b = b as a=b
2 = 1

Which Law of Maths is violated if any ?
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rstruble's Avatar, Join Date: Oct 2009
Go4Expert Member
at (a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b), when you got result a+b=b you divided by zero. if a=b, then a-b=0.

-RStruble
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Mridula's Avatar, Join Date: Mar 2008
Pro contributor
Is it commutative law?
as if a = b then b=a right?
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SaswatPadhi's Avatar, Join Date: May 2009
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rstruble View Post
at (a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b), when you got result a+b=b you divided by zero. if a=b, then a-b=0.

-RStruble
Right !
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rstruble's Avatar, Join Date: Oct 2009
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Sweet!!! I win! xD
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SaswatPadhi's Avatar, Join Date: May 2009
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Congratz ...
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rstruble's Avatar, Join Date: Oct 2009
Go4Expert Member
My Alg II teacher taught me the same basic thing in 11th grade:

x=1
x*x=x*1
x^2=x
x^2-1=x-1
(x+1)(x-1)=(x-1)
x+1=1
1+1=1
2=1

same thing, different variables
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SaswatPadhi's Avatar, Join Date: May 2009
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For one more such fallacy, using Complex Numbers , see http://www.math.toronto.edu/mathnet/...econd1eq2.html.
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shabbir's Avatar, Join Date: Jul 2004
Go4Expert Founder
Yes you win