Go4Expert - View Single Post - How can 1=2

shabbir

If we have a = b then
a^2 = ab
a^2 – b^2 = ab – b^2
(a + b) (a – b) = b (a – b)
a + b = b
2b = b as a=b
2 = 1

Which Law of Maths is violated if any ?

shabbir Go4Expert Founder
27Oct2009,18:28
	If we have a = b then a^2 = ab a^2 – b^2 = ab – b^2 (a + b) (a – b) = b (a – b) a + b = b 2b = b as a=b 2 = 1 Which Law of Maths is violated if any ?